Husband has moved out the house for 2 years, and didn;t pay any expenses towards the house, such as mortgage, property tax, maintenances, etc. I have already refied the house under my own name.
My question is what is the time line we should use when decide the house value? Should it be as to the court day or back to 2 years back when he stopped paying for house?
thanks a lot.
In this scenario, the most appropriate timeline to determine the house value would likely be the current date or as close to it as possible. Since the husband has not contributed to any expenses related to the house for the past two years and the house has been refinanced under your own name, the value of the house at the present time would accurately reflect its current market worth. Using the court day or reverting back to when the husband stopped paying for the house may not accurately represent the current value of the property.
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